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Jackson6612 Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

It was thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

It was thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

I hope the above sentence is correct. The construction was thought is in passive past tense and have been written is in passive present perfect tense.

I don't understand why past tense is mixed with present tense. Please help me.
  

Top answer

The sentence is grammatically correct, Jackson, and completely in accordance with English grammatical rules and practices. To have been written is a passive perfect infinitive. There are only two infinitives in English and they can be used in both active and passive.

  • The sentence is grammatically correct, Jackson, and completely in accordance with English grammatical rules and practices.
  • To have been written is a passive perfect infinitive.
  • There are only two infinitives in English and they can be used in both active and passive.
  • As a rule, the present infintive refers to the present and the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past: Active, present infinitive : I would write it down.
  • He may come tomorrow.
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11 Answers
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The sentence is grammatically correct, Jackson, and completely in accordance with English grammatical rules and practices. To have been written is a passive perfect infinitive. There are only two infinitives in English and they can be used in both active and passive. As a rule, the present infintive refers to the present and the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past:
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It was thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

In the above sentence:

It is used as a subject.

was is an auxiliary verb showing simple past tense and thought is a past participle serving the function of the main verb with reference to some past action.

to have been, as CB says, is a perfect i
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Jackson6612
Is what I say above correct?


Is my description correct?
I see nothing worth arguing.

CB
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You can also say that:
"should be"
is a subjunctive form of the verb "to be."
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What kind of mood does should represent?
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should be
is
subjunctive mood
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CB wrote: ''As a rule, the present infintive refers to the present and the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past.''

I'm changing my original sentence to the present tense:

It is thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

to have been
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CB wrote: ''As a rule, the present infintive refers to the present and the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past.''

I'm changing my original sentence to the present tense:

It is thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

to have been
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Jackson6612CB wrote: ''As a rule, the present infintive refers to the present and the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past.''

It is thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

to have been is perfect infinitive but her
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Cool Breeze
Jackson6612CB wrote: ''As a rule, the present infintive refers to the present and the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past.''

It is thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.

to have be

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