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Hans51 Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
"It was found to have increased their anxiety levels."
"It was found to have increased their anxiety levels."
I have learned that to have p.p implies more past events than past tense like
He seems to have done it
-> It seems that he did it.
And then dose the same rule apply to the example sentence?
Or to have p.p also has a meaning of present particle like I have done it so far, I have studied English, etc like
To have done it so far is true.
->It is true that we have done it so far.
I have studied English since middle school.
->It is true for me to have studied English since middle school.
What do you native English speakers think? Thank you so much as usual in advance!
I have learned that to have p.p implies more past events than past tense like
He seems to have done it
-> It seems that he did it.
And then dose the same rule apply to the example sentence?
Or to have p.p also has a meaning of present particle like I have done it so far, I have studied English, etc like
To have done it so far is true.
->It is true that we have done it so far.
I have studied English since middle school.
->It is true for me to have studied English since middle school.
What do you native English speakers think? Thank you so much as usual in advance!
Top answer
p implies more past events than past tense likeHe seems to have done it-> It seems that he did it. I can't figure out what you mean by "implies more past events than past tense". "He seems to have done it" means roughly the same as "It seems that he did it", but it may have a stronger sense of the action affecting the present or being relevant in the present.
- p implies more past events than past tense likeHe seems to have done it-> It seems that he did it.
- I can't figure out what you mean by "implies more past events than past tense".
- "He seems to have done it" means roughly the same as "It seems that he did it", but it may have a stronger sense of the action affecting the present or being relevant in the present.
- p also has a meaning of present particle I don't see where this idea comes from.
- ->It is true that we have done it so far.
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3 Answers
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Hans51I have learned that to have p.p implies more past events than past tense likeHe seems to have done it-> It seems that he did it.I can't figure out what you mean by "implies more past events than past tense". "He seems to have done it" means roughly the same as "It seems that he did it", but it may have a stronger sense of the action affecting the pre
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Thank you so much.
Well...I still do not know how to start...
As you know, "He seems to have done it" can be rewrite to "It seems that he did it". And the reason to have done is used is that tenses used in the sentence are different like seems and did, so I said more past events than past tense but here just one tense.
And then I am co
Well...I still do not know how to start...
As you know, "He seems to have done it" can be rewrite to "It seems that he did it". And the reason to have done is used is that tenses used in the sentence are different like seems and did, so I said more past events than past tense but here just one tense.
And then I am co
00
While English has separate past and present perfect tenses, it does not have separate past and present perfect infinitives. Instead, one form, the perfect infinitive, "to have p.p", has to suffice. So, for example, "It seems that he did it" and "It seems that he has done it" must both map to "He seems to have done it". It practice, the perfect infinitive often retains at least some of the "connect
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