it has been always vs it has always been

This means it does not violate the rules of grammar.

Oh! one more question. Does it mean it is inappropriate? because when a question checks the usage or it is given to check whether the sentence is grammatically correct or not then in that case what to do? mark it as inappropriate?

unprlldwhy not it has been always?

Adverbs of frequency go after the first verb of a multiple verb sequence.

has been > has always been
would have been > would always have been
is taking > is always taking
should be done > should always be done

CJ

Frequency adverbs are placed where the word "not" would be used if we wanted to use a negative, Therefore, as the negative would be: It has not been..., the correct position is: It has always been....
Hope you find this useful

Thank you, it's really helpful