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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

'it all'

"I have eaten it all". I think the speech part of 'all' is pronoun but according to my grammar book, it is an adverb. Hmm...I think both are fine but 'pronoun' is more correct, referring to Longman dictionary. What do you say about it? Thank you as always and I really appreciate your help.
  

Top answer

It cannot be a pronoun, since it is right next to 'it', which is definitely a pronoun. Here is the example sentence for the adverb in one online dictionary: He spent his income all on pleasure. ( Cf: He spent it all on pleasure; He ate it all).

  • It cannot be a pronoun, since it is right next to 'it', which is definitely a pronoun.
  • Here is the example sentence for the adverb in one online dictionary: He spent his income all on pleasure.
  • ( Cf: He spent it all on pleasure; He ate it all).
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5 Answers
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It cannot be a pronoun, since it is right next to 'it', which is definitely a pronoun. Here is the example sentence for the adverb in one online dictionary:

He spent his income all on pleasure. (Cf: He spent it all on pleasure; He ate it all).
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Thank you sir and it makes sense but as far as I know, 'all' can be next to a pronoun as we all are happy, you all have to go ,etc.( we=all and you=all), so I think we can say it=all. Don't you think so? Thank you as usual.
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We all, you all -- I think those 'all's are adjectives, but we can wait for another opinion.
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Hi,

I looked all up in Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary, and I saw these three examples:

They've eaten all of it.

They've eaten it all.

They all enjoyed it.

According to this dictionary, all is a pronoun in all the cases above.

Here is the link:

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OK, thanks. Still, only the first one looks like a pronoun to me. Lexicographers may be as confused as I am since Merriam-Webster has this as an adjective: being more than one person or thing <who all is coming?>

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