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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

IS vs BE?

Hi

I saw this question in a book "The doctrine of seperation of powers prescribes that the functions of the three arms of government BE clearly and institutinally sepearted."

Why did not they say "...IS clearly and institutionally separated."?

Sometimes I see people use "be" instead of "is" and I can never understand why..can somebody pls help.

Thx
  

Top answer

Hi, that's because some verbs and expressions require the subjunctive. * 1. What is the subjunctive?

  • Hi, that's because some verbs and expressions require the subjunctive.
  • * 1.
  • What is the subjunctive?
  • Some language have special forms called 'subjunctives', which are used especially to talk about 'unreal' situations: things that are possible, desirable or imaginary.
  • Older English had subjunctives, but in modern English they have mostly been replaced by uses of should, would and other modal verbs, by special uses of past tenses, and by ordinary verb forms.
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3 Answers
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Hi,

that's because some verbs and expressions require the subjunctive.

Below is an excerpt from Swann's book (§567).*


1. What is the subjunctive?
Some language have special forms called 'subjunctives', which are used especially to talk about 'unreal' situations: things that ar
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Anonymousprescribes that the functions of the three arms of government BE clearly and institutinally sepearted."

Why did not they say "...IS clearly and institutionally separated."?
prescribes that is like commands that in meaning. After an expression of commanding, be substitutes for am, is or are in a that
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Thanks so much everyone, I really appreicate it..

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