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Khoshtip Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Is to be vs has to be

In these sentences:

He is to be ....
He has to be ....

What is the difference please?
  

Top answer

khoshtip the difference The idioms are "have to" and "is to". Both are semi-modal idioms. Any infinitive can follow; it doesn't have to be "be".

  • khoshtip the difference The idioms are "have to" and "is to".
  • Both are semi-modal idioms.
  • Any infinitive can follow; it doesn't have to be "be".
  • "have to" has all the verb forms that other verbs have: has to, had to, will have to, has had to, would have to, had had to , ...
  • "is to" only has five forms: am to, is to, are to, was to, were to .
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4 Answers
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khoshtipthe difference
The idioms are "have to" and "is to". Both are semi-modal idioms. Any infinitive can follow; it doesn't have to be "be".

"have to" has all the verb forms that other verbs have: has to, had to, will have to, has had to, would have to, had had to, ...
"is to" only has five forms: am to, is to, are to, was to, wer
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Thank you. Please give an example that "is to" can be paraphrased as "is going to".
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khoshtip Please give an example that "is to" can be paraphrased as "is going to".
The judge ruled that the house is to be sold by the executor.
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To me "be going to" means a kind of intention. And "is going to" at that sentence more means "should".

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