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Joe2012 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Is this sentence grammatically right ?

Sentence: I sympathize with him, nobody in the history - as far as I know -- has been subject to vilification as he has been.

My question/doubt: Is this sentence grammatically right ?

Thanks
  

Top answer

With no further context, yes, it is OK-- except that something more than a comma is needed after 'him'. What part bothers you?

— Mister Micawber

  • With no further context, yes, it is OK-- except that something more than a comma is needed after 'him'.
  • What part bothers you?
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6 Answers
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With no further context, yes, it is OK-- except that something more than a comma is needed after 'him'. What part bothers you?
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"What part bothers you?"
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Thanks for your reply. It was "as he has been". I thought it could be "has been" or "had been". As for the context it was regarding e-mail exchanges with a friend.

Thanks
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Ah. 'Has been' vs 'had been' depends solely upon his present situation. Either is possible.
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" Either is possible."
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True. But methinks since the vilication hasn't stopped and it's going on "has been" would be more appropraite because it denotes present continuous whereas "had been" would denote that the vilification has been stopped at some point in the past. Isn't ?

Thanks
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There is no indication in the text as to whether it has stopped.
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"There is no indication in the text as to whether it has stopped."
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You are right, my bad.Emotion: smile
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