Is this correct?
"I have no one to socialize with in the countryside."
Is this correct grammar? Is it okay to have two prepositions together? Can someone please explain the different parts of the speech in this sentence please, especially ...to socialize with in the countryside?
Top answer
EugeneJB no one Words like 'nobody', 'somebody', and 'anybody' (also 'no one', 'someone', 'anyone') often take an infinitive modifier. The same is true of the corresponding inanimates like 'nothing', etc. You can invite someone, visit someone, or do something.
- EugeneJB no one Words like 'nobody', 'somebody', and 'anybody' (also 'no one', 'someone', 'anyone') often take an infinitive modifier.
- The same is true of the corresponding inanimates like 'nothing', etc.
- You can invite someone, visit someone, or do something.
- So you can have these expressions: someone to invite (someone that I can invite) no one to visit (no one that I can visit) anything to do (not anything that I can do) Likewise, you can talk to someone, socialize with someone, sing for someone.
- So you can have these: somebody to talk to (somebody that I can talk to) no one to socialize with (no one that I can socialize with) anyone to sing for (not anyone that I can sing for) It doesn't matter if you use a prepositional phrase after these expressions to say where something happens.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
EugeneJBno one
Words like 'nobody', 'somebody', and 'anybody' (also 'no one', 'someone', 'anyone') often take an infinitive modifier. The same is true of the corresponding inanimates like 'nothing', etc.
You can invite someone, visit someone, or do something. So you can have these expressions:
someone to invite (s
0
Related Questions