0
Johnson13 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
Is the sixth of the eight who has got the Nobel Prize
There's no context. A sentence:
-He is the sixth of the eight who has got the Nobel Prize.
1. IS, I guess, indicates the person is alive. But the act of receiving the prize is in the past, can I use WAS also?
2. HAS GOT is a corruption of HAVE GOT, I think. No matter whether the other seven are dead or not, am I correct in saying that UK English tends to use HAVE GOT while US tends to use GOT?
-He is the sixth of the eight who has got the Nobel Prize.
1. IS, I guess, indicates the person is alive. But the act of receiving the prize is in the past, can I use WAS also?
2. HAS GOT is a corruption of HAVE GOT, I think. No matter whether the other seven are dead or not, am I correct in saying that UK English tends to use HAVE GOT while US tends to use GOT?
Top answer
1. Yes. 2.
- 1.
- Yes.
- 2.
- Johnson13 HAS GOT is a corruption of HAVE GOT Not a corruption, but a grammar error.
- But then, so is 'got', really.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
7 Answers
0
1. Yes.
2.
He is the sixth of the eight who have received the Nobel Prize.
2.
Johnson13HAS GOT is a corruption of HAVE GOTNot a corruption, but a grammar error. But then, so is 'got', really. It should read:
He is the sixth of the eight who have received the Nobel Prize.
Johnson13am I correct in saying that UK English tends to use HAVE GOT while US tends to use GOT?
00
Thank you, MM.
But isn't there a recognised difference between UK and US English?
UK- He is the handsomest man that has ever lived.
US- He is the handsomest man that ever lived.
(only a general difference, we have no right to bar any man from one side of the Atlantic from using the usage prevalent on the other side.
But isn't there a recognised difference between UK and US English?
UK- He is the handsomest man that has ever lived.
US- He is the handsomest man that ever lived.
(only a general difference, we have no right to bar any man from one side of the Atlantic from using the usage prevalent on the other side.
00
Johnson13Thank you, MM.But isn't there a recognised difference between UK and US English?UK- He is the handsomest man that has ever lived.US- He is the handsomest man that ever lived.(only a general difference, we have no right to bar any man from one side of the Atlantic from using the usage prevalent on the other side.Yes, that is a trend (but 'ever' is not
00
Thank you, MM.
eg She's got a BA in English. (UK)
eg She has a BA in English. (US)
Don't Britons tend to use HAVE GOT but Americans HAVE?
No. You are confusing this with HAVE (BrE) vs HAVE GOT (AmE)
eg She's got a BA in English. (UK)
eg She has a BA in English. (US)
00
Johnson13No. You are confusing this with HAVE (BrE) vs HAVE GOT (AmE)Don't Britons tend to use HAVE GOT but Americans HAVE?eg She's got a BA in English. (UK)eg She has a BA in English. (US)I think you have them reversed.
00
Thank you, MM.
From: http://oald8.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/dictionary/have
One sentence there is: (In some senses have got is also used, especially in British English.)
What's the difference between this and the sentences in my previous post?
From: http://oald8.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/dictionary/have
One sentence there is: (In some senses have got is also used, especially in British English.)
What's the difference between this and the sentences in my previous post?
00
Johnson13What's the difference between this and the sentences in my previous post?I don't know; I have just given my opinion, though I do not think much about this trivial difference. You will have to wait for confirmation from a BrE.
0
Related Questions