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Gargie Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

Is simple past ever justified with “by”

Can anyone shed some light on the following aspect?

  1. By 5 PM I gave him the book.

     By 5 PM I had given him the book.


In both the sentences the book was given before 5 PM and no later than 5 PM. But I can't understand then what the difference between them is. a Also is it right to use simple past with 'by' at all? If yes, then why and if not, then why is it incorrect to use simple past with 'by'?

Thanks 
  

Top answer

It sounds a lot better to use the second example with the past perfect because we are referring to a past time before another past time. That is exactly where we would use the past perfect. By the time it was 5, I had given him the book.

— Englishmaven

  • It sounds a lot better to use the second example with the past perfect because we are referring to a past time before another past time.
  • That is exactly where we would use the past perfect.
  • By the time it was 5, I had given him the book.
  • The first sentence would sound more natural with the time phrase at the end.
  • m.
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1 Answers
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It sounds a lot better to use the second example with the past perfect because we are referring to a past time before another past time. That is exactly where we would use the past perfect.

By the time it was 5, I had given him the book.

The first sentence would sound more natural with the time phrase at the end.
I gave him the book by 5 p.m.

Looking at a scenario,
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