Is Nevertheless Used Correctly?

Question

Hi,This is the first time I have included nevertheless in a paper, so I am unsure if I have used it correctly in the following two sentences. The first sentence is the concluding statement of a paragraph, and the second sentence is the topic sentence for the following paragraph.“As demonstrated by both Beowulf and Christ’s actions, nothing is infeasible for them.Nevertheless, both Beowulf and Christ eventually die; their final moments, however, are still shockingly alike.”Thank you in advance!

Dimsumexpress · Accepted Answer

Yes, it is, but the passage requires revision as follows:

“As demonstrated by both Beowulf and Christ’s actions, nothing is infeasible.

Nevertheless, they eventually die. At their final moments, they were still shockingly alike.”

Tanit · Answer

dimsumexpress they eventually die. At their final moments, they were still shockingly alike.”

I beg your pardon, but I think this significantly alters the meaning of the original sentence.

The OP stated that Jesus' and Beowulf's final moments were similar:

S-C-3-1-3both Beowulf and Christ eventually die; their final moments, however, are still shockingly alike.

In the "revised" version, however, Jesus and Beowulf are similar. That's a whole different concept, I think.

Dimsumexpress · Answer

Ah...I see what you meant. It only now hit me now this is a religious context. You are right, in that case, I did alter the meaning of the OP sentence. <img class='emoticon' style='Width:19px;Height:19px;' data-delaysrc='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/10.gif' src='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/10.gif' alt='Emotion: embarrassed'/>

Tanit · Answer

Hi,

dimsumexpressIt only now hit me now this is a religious context. You are right, in that case, I did alter the meaning of the OP sentence.

It has nothing to do with the context. It is one things to say that two people were similar in their last days (or years, or hours); it is another thing to say that their last days (or years, or hours) were similar.

Let's assume two people died because of two car accidents.

Would you say that their final moments were alike, or would you say that theywere alike (without knowing anything about them ... their age, their nationality, their job, their personality etc). I wouldn't go that far ...

S-C-3-1-3 · Answer

Thank you everyone, and sorry if the question confused you! <img class='emoticon' style='Width:19px;Height:19px;' data-delaysrc='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/1.gif' src='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/1.gif' alt='Emotion: smile'/>

Clive · Answer

Hi,

This is the first time I have included nevertheless in a paper, so I am unsure if I have used it correctly in the following two sentences. The first sentence is the concluding statement of a paragraph, and the second sentence is the topic sentence for the following paragraph.

“As demonstrated by both Beowulf and Christ’s actions, nothing is infeasible for them.

Nevertheless, both Beowulf and Christ eventually die; their final moments, however, are still shockingly alike.”

Broadly speaking, think of 'nevertheless' as introducing something that surprises the reader, something that contradicts what has neen said just previously.In your paragraph, I don't see clearly what is being 'contradicted'.

My guess is that you mean this.

“As demonstrated by both Beowulf and Christ’s actions, nothing is infeasible for them. Both of them can avoid death. Nevertheless, both Beowulf and Christ eventually die; their final moments, however, are still shockingly alike.”

I don't know why you are saying 'however'. And 'however' does not fit well with 'nevertheless'.

I am not sure why you have used a semi-colon.

As a British person, I would prefer to say 'unfeasible'.

Clive

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