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Lenore Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Is it possible to use,in some cases, "do" for the third personal pronouns ?

I have been reading a short story from W.W. Jacobs, the Monkey's Paw and I have just run into such a sentence like " he don't look to have taken much harm." what I wonder is why the author have used "do not" for "he", why not "doesn't"? I am a bit confused in this matter.
is there anybody who can explain this pls ?
  

Top answer

It's written in dialect. It sounds like it could be in backwoods America but the author was British so I'm at loss. In any case I wouldn't recommend trying to emulate the dialog in this story, it's decidedly non-standard.

— RayH

  • It's written in dialect.
  • It sounds like it could be in backwoods America but the author was British so I'm at loss.
  • In any case I wouldn't recommend trying to emulate the dialog in this story, it's decidedly non-standard.
  • I heard the radio version of this story years ago.
  • I still get chills when I think about it.
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3 Answers
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It's written in dialect. It sounds like it could be in backwoods America but the author was British so I'm at loss. In any case I wouldn't recommend trying to emulate the dialog in this story, it's decidedly non-standard.

I heard the radio version of this story years ago. I still get chills when I think about it.
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One of my grandmothers (cradle-to-grave Coloradoan) was very articulate, with absolutely standard English, except for 'he don't'. Where it came from, I have no idea, but she's the only person in my family who hasn't had 'doesn't' in their everyday vocabulary.
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I see. I just wondered if I've mistaken in understanding. cuz it might have got a particular meaning which I dunno. anyway.. thank you all guys.
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