Is it correct, 'He takes coffee in the mornings'?

Thinking Spainit is better to say, 'He always drinks / has coffee in the mornings. Right?

Right for American English. I believe British English does sometimes use "takes" in that sentence.

CJ

Hi Jim,
Thank you for your reply. I was completely sure that 'takes' can't be use in that sense.
I've heard. 'He takes sugar in his tea', for example.

TS

Thinking SpainHe takes sugar in his tea

Yes. That's a different use of 'take'. It's fine in both AmE and BrE.

CJ

By the way, "in the mornings" is unidiomatic, drink/take/has aside.

He has coffee mornings. (informal—"always" is implied)
He always has coffee in the morning.

enoon"in the mornings" is unidiomatic

I missed that.

enoonHe has coffee mornings.

Hmm. I would never say that, and I don't hear it. Maybe it's regional.

enoonHe always has coffee in the morning.

This is how I would say it.

CJ

CalifJimenoonHe has coffee mornings.Hmm. I would never say that, and I don't hear it. Maybe it's regional

How about, "He has coffee most mornings"? I think it's an Americanism, but don't quote me. It's similar to "He has been known to have coffee of a morning." I have no clue what that is. Irish?

enoonHow about, "He has coffee most mornings"?

You got me there. This one sounds fine. Strange what one word will do.

enoonof a morning." ... Irish?

Could be Irish for all I know, but I've seen this turn of phrase in Dickens novels, too. I suspect it's an older form used both in AmE and in BrE.

CJ

CalifJimRight for American English. I believe British English does sometimes use "takes" in that sentence.

Hi Jim,
Would this be considered American usage If I say " I usually take my coffee black in the morning. I need the pure caffeine to make the 50 mile commute ".
Thanks,

DS

dimsumexpressI usually take my coffee black in the morning.

Sounds fine to me!

CJ

Thanks!

DS