0
Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

Is it correct? Cheers !

•The Landlord right to terminate the Contract due to filing a motion concerning bankruptcy and recovery proceedings
  

Top answer

No. It makes no sense. It is not a sentence.

  • No.
  • It makes no sense.
  • It is not a sentence.
  • There is no verb.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

3 Answers
0
No. It makes no sense. It is not a sentence. There is no verb.
0
It's a provision in a lease agreement so it may look a little bit odd, however what I want to know is whether it is grammatically correct?Oh, and it should be "The Landlord's right to..."

Many thanks!
0
Anonymouswhat I want to know is whether it is grammatically correct?
A grammatical sentence must have a lexical verb. What you posted has none.
If you don't post a complete sentence, it is impossible to tell if it is grammatically sound.

Related Questions