Hi, quick question about whether the "e" at the end of misanthrope is a suffix or not. Because that e at the end serves to imply "a person." We notice this same e at the end of philanthrope.
If it is indeed a suffix, then what is its origin?
It seems to me that perhaps the word misanthrope can etymologically be broken down as such:
miso + anthropos + -e (suffix)
Could you please guide me in the understanding of this e ending? Thank you so much!
Shay Singh It seems to me that perhaps the word misanthrope can etymologically be broken down as such: I warned you not to guess at etymologies. Shay Singh Could you please guide me in the understanding of this e ending? It is not an ending.
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Shay SinghIt seems to me that perhaps the word misanthrope can etymologically be broken down as such:
I warned you not to guess at etymologies.
Shay SinghCould you please guide me in the understanding of this e ending?
It is not an ending. The word came in whole from French. The French word is from Greek, and the "
anthropos (Greek)
The ending -e is required to preserve the pronunciation of the long "o" sound. If it were not there, the "o" would be short.
In the alterative: misanthropist ( -ist is a common suffix) The long "o" sound is preserved also. mis-an-thro-pist.