Is the sentence: "What she did Maria will never know." in inverted order? My thinking is that it is not. I think that "Maria" is the subject and "will never know" the predicate. This sentence and claim came out of a textbook and I think the textbook is wrong! Can someone clarify this for me please!
Top answer
Hello Guest I would take it as an inversion. Normal order: 1. Maria will never know what she did.
— MrPedantic
Hello Guest I would take it as an inversion.
Normal order: 1.
Maria will never know what she did.
Inversion: 2.
What she did, Maria will never know.
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Thanks for your response. I guess I'd like a few more details from you. The way I understand inverted sentences is that the order of subject and predicate are reversed from their normal S-P order. It seems to me that #2 hasn't altered the order of S-P and therefore is not the inverse of #1??? Please explain further.
I think the linguistic term for that is rather "topicalization".
topicalization [noun] (linguistics) the placement of the topic at the beginning of a sentence, as in "That movie, you couldn't pay me to see" `"Those girls, they giggle when they see me". [url="
I am probably using 'inversion' in a loose sense, to include Miltonic inversions ('Of man's first disobedience...'), putting the object first, certain kinds of topicalization, etc.
(Perhaps the text book in question has done the same.)
Incidentally, does the 'movie' example sound odd to you? I could accept 'That movie – you couldn't pay me to see it!';
Yes, "That movie – you couldn't pay me to see it" sounds more natural to me also, though the dictionary editor might intentionally leave out "it" to emphasize the fronting of the object noun phrase.
paco
[PS] What about the case below? I don't feel much difference in naturalness between the two. 2-a. What she did, Maria will never know. 2-b. What she did, Mar