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Cho7712 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

inversion

I found this example as maked wrong in the web.
ex1. They go to concerts, as do I. (X)
But, I suspect that just as the example below is grammatical so is the above one.
ex2. They go to concerts, as do all their relatives.
What makes ex1 ruled out?
  

Top answer

It isn’t wrong.

— RandomGuy

  • It isn’t wrong.
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5 Answers
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Thank you for the answer.
However, I think that the pronoun is generally considered as 'old information' so that it is very awkward to be in the end position.
If it does not much ado for you, would you please refer to which grammar book you quoted for your answer?
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cho7712would you please refer to which grammar book you quoted for your answer?
I didn’t. My ear just tells me that it’s not wrong. I wouldn’t say it’s awkward, either.
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I doubt if AG referred to a grammar book. He doesn't need to for questions such as this; he is a very proficient native speaker. I would have given the same response if I had got there first.

Generally we do not invert after 'as' when the subject is a pronoun, but it is not wrong to do so.

(Cross-posted with AG's last response)
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Thank you for your answers.
I hope you do not feel any hard feeling about the way of my asking a question.
I also want you to know that I'm really thankful of your help.
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