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Taka Posted 20 years ago
Grammar
inversion
(1)The more we know about life, the better we can understand the books we read.
Sometimes, there is an inversion in 'The -er, the -er' structure, as:
(1)-a The more we know about life, the better can we understand the books we read.
Now, (1) can also be:
(1)-b We can understand the books we read the better, the more we know about life.
Then, do we also see the same kind of inversion here like (1)-a, as:
(1)-c We can understand the books we read the better, the more do we know about life.
?
Sometimes, there is an inversion in 'The -er, the -er' structure, as:
(1)-a The more we know about life, the better can we understand the books we read.
Now, (1) can also be:
(1)-b We can understand the books we read the better, the more we know about life.
Then, do we also see the same kind of inversion here like (1)-a, as:
(1)-c We can understand the books we read the better, the more do we know about life.
?
Top answer
I like your organizing skills, Taka. Sentence (1)-a is actually not in keeping with the grammatical rules of English although I think I have seen inversions like it as well. There is no need to have inversion in the sentence.
- I like your organizing skills, Taka.
- Sentence (1)-a is actually not in keeping with the grammatical rules of English although I think I have seen inversions like it as well.
- There is no need to have inversion in the sentence.
- However, there are more cases of inversion in the other Germanic languages and that's why some of them don't always sound so bad when employed in English.
- Over the centuries, most of these instances of inversion disappeared from English as the grammar became more streamlined.
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14 Answers
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I like your organizing skills, Taka. Sentence (1)-a is actually not in keeping with the grammatical rules of English although I think I have seen inversions like it as well. There is no need to have inversion in the sentence. However, there are more cases of inversion in the other Germanic languages and that's why some of them don't always sound so bad when employed in English. Over the centuries
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Based on linking from cause to effect, I'd say the order
the more ... the better
would/should be much more prevalent.
And, yes, 1(a) is probably quite rare.
the more ... the better
would/should be much more prevalent.
And, yes, 1(a) is probably quite rare.
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Inversion is not possible in (1)-c. Inversions in such sentences are correct only in corollaries (consequents) because they emphasize the effect of the condition (antecedent).
Hope this will help you get it.
Hope this will help you get it.
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I'm inclined to think that people should be permitted a little quiet inversion, if that's what they prefer; but speaking personally, I find all the examples except #1 rather strange.
MrP
MrP
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Davidrock65He meant only 1 is NOT strange to him...I know. And I'm asking if enen (1)-b sounds strange to him.
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I'd preferred (1)-b until I saw the others' replies.
And obviously have I made many this sort of mistakes.
And obviously have I made many this sort of mistakes.
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I'm wondering where this inversion rule came from.
The more we practice, the better we play in our matches CANNOT be The more we practice, the better play we in our matches.
The more we practice, the better we play in our matches CANNOT be The more we practice, the better play we in our matches.
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