0
BKatia Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Introductory It + infiniitive

Why we can replace

"John is hard to please" with "It's hard to please John"

and can't replace

"John is eager to please everybody" with the same construction "It's + infinitive" as a subject.

What's the explanation for this in terms of grammar

Thanks in advance
  

Top answer

Because John is the object of the pleasing in the first one but the subject of the pleasing in the 2nd one.

— Mister Micawber

  • Because John is the object of the pleasing in the first one but the subject of the pleasing in the 2nd one.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

4 Answers
0
Because John is the object of the pleasing in the first one but the subject of the pleasing in the 2nd one.
0
0
Are they objects and subjects grammatically or semantically? I mean there is no passive voice in th? first sentence so why John is an object?
0
0
No, I meant the real doer and receiver of the action.
0

Related Questions