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Anonymous Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

intransitive verb

Hi,
I think the verbs 'vanish' and 'surface' are intransitive verbs. I think that means they take no objects and no passive form is available for them. Does that mean only passive form is not available and other verbal ? constructions are still available to them like attaching modal verbs like 'could', 'would', 'can' and 'could'?

So these are not possible?

was vanished/surfaced has been vanished having been vanished/surfaced

But all these are possible with the modals doing their functions to indicate ability, possibility, etc.?

has vanished/surfaced would have vanished/surfaced could have vanished/surfaced must have vanished/surfaced

Is this correct as part of a subordinate clause?

Having vanished from the scence, he stayed in Mexico for a few months.
Having surfaced from the miry bottom, it tried to breathe on its own.
  

Top answer

) (Incidently, I sometimes use "to surface" as a transitive verb in the sense of "to put a surface on something," similar to the more common term "to resurface," which is also used intransitively. ") I can't think of a passive use of "to vanish," as you say. << has vanished/surfaced would have vanished/surfaced could have vanished/surfaced must have vanished/surfaced >> You seem to imply that these could have something to do with passive voice.

  • ) (Incidently, I sometimes use "to surface" as a transitive verb in the sense of "to put a surface on something," similar to the more common term "to resurface," which is also used intransitively.
  • ") I can't think of a passive use of "to vanish," as you say.
  • << has vanished/surfaced would have vanished/surfaced could have vanished/surfaced must have vanished/surfaced >> You seem to imply that these could have something to do with passive voice.
  • I'm not sure I understand your point here.
  • Is this correct as part of a subordinate clause?
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6 Answers
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Hi, anon,
You seem to know what you're talking about, but I wonder if at some point you're mixing the verb "to be" (as used in passive voice) with auxilliary verbs (as used in the formulation of some of the tenses.)

(Incidently, I sometimes use "to surface" as a transitive verb in the sense of "to put a surface on something," similar to the more common term "to resurface," which is a
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Thank you very much. What I am not sure is if we can use modal verbs like 'could', 'would', 'must' and 'can' in front of an intransitive verb? I think it could but I am too familiar with it since I havent' been using the constructions like that many times.

So, all these are possible with modals doing what they are supposed to do?

has vanished/surfaced would have van
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Anon:
Yes, modals can be used with intransitive verbs.
Sleep is intransitive, yet these are frequent:
I would sleep if I could.
I don't hear him, he must be sleeping.
The same is true for vanish and surface.
I don't see him anymore; he must have vanished into thin air.
The submarine should have surfaced before it was too late. It cannot surfac
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Thank you, AlpheccaStars and Avangi.

Is this correct?

has vanished/surfaced

But this is not?

has been vanished/surfaced
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I think using present perfect for intransitive verbs like has vanished/surfaced is ok.

I don't think we can use passive for intransitive verbs:
http://www.englishpage.com/forums/archive/index.php/t-6864.html
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Well, it's quite tricky, because in English most verbs can be used in both transitive and intransitive contexts.
The verb surface can be both... An old report has been surfaced by the research team that went through the archives. (passive)

After spending several minutes under water, the swimmer has finally surfaced. (present perfect, intransitive)
I cannot think of a

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