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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Interrogative subject verb agreement explanation

I'm looking for a reasonable explanation to give to ESL students for why it is that certain interrogative/question constructs have a plural verb even though the subject is singular. For instance:

Why does she do that? (Why "do" when the subject is "she"?) She does it to irritate you.

Why must he sing that song? (Why "sing" when the subject is "he")? He sings because he has to.

How can he live with himself? (Why "live" with "he"?) He lives with himself one day at a time.

How does he do that?

Is there any reason or rule for this other than it simply being diction or idiom?
  

Top answer

Because in those cases you are using auxiliary verbs, which are the ones that must agree with the subjects. ) or when you use it because it's required in negative/interrogative structures, then it's the one you have to conjugate. She sings.

  • Because in those cases you are using auxiliary verbs, which are the ones that must agree with the subjects.
  • ) or when you use it because it's required in negative/interrogative structures, then it's the one you have to conjugate.
  • She sings.
  • She does sing.
  • Does she sing?
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2 Answers
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Because in those cases you are using auxiliary verbs, which are the ones that must agree with the subjects.
When you use an auxiliary verb (must, can, etc.) or when you use it because it's required in negative/interrogative structures, then it's the one you have to conjugate.

She sings.
She does sing.
Does she sing?

She must
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Anonymouscertain interrogative/question constructs have a plural verb even though the subject is singular.
Not true. That form is a bare infinitive, not a plural form.

She sings has the underlying structure She does sing. (does + bare infinitive)

The question form inverts the subject and verb of the underlying st

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