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Cho7712 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

intention

In the book 'Advanced Grammar in Use ', I found the following example.
ex. I have no intention of lending Dan any more money.
(not .....no intention to lend.....)
Since there is no additional explanation of this, I'm just left fully uninformed.
Is there a systematic reason for why to-infinitive does not replace of-phrase?
  

Top answer

cho7712 ex. I have no intention of lending Dan any more money. ) The "have no intention of" structure is prevalent in English.

— Ozzourti

  • cho7712 ex.
  • I have no intention of lending Dan any more money.
  • ) The "have no intention of" structure is prevalent in English.
  • I can only say that "have no intention to" sounds weird -- it would be readily understood of course but it just doesn't sound as natural as the first one.
  • ".
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4 Answers
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cho7712ex. I have no intention of lending Dan any more money. (not .....no intention to lend.....)
The "have no intention of" structure is prevalent in English. I can only say that "have no intention to" sounds weird -- it would be readily understood of course but it just doesn't sound as natural as the first one.
If you want to use "to + infinitive", you
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cho7712In the book 'Advanced Grammar in Use ', I found the following example.ex. I have no intention of lending Dan any more money.(not .....no intention to lend.....)Since there is no additional explanation of this, I'm just left fully uninformed.Is there a systematic reason for why to-infinitive does not replace of-phrase?
This is the tricky part about using
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Thank you all for the answers. So it all depends on how I get used to English use in the various context.
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Would you agree that "It wasn't my intention to..." structure usually expresses a kind of apology about what already happened?
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