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Taka Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

-ing+noun

0 01i00・a/an -ing+noun02i02br
02br
00My book says when a particple is used to modify the following noun, the participle is intransitive verb origin.02br
02br
00Is it necessarily so?0-
  

Top answer

0Would "a looking glass" (another word for "mirror") be an example of that? 02br 02br 00Oh wait - what about "fishing rod"? 0-

  • 0Would "a looking glass" (another word for "mirror") be an example of that?
  • 02br 02br 00Oh wait - what about "fishing rod"?
  • 0-
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8 Answers
0
0Would "a looking glass" (another word for "mirror") be an example of that? Or a "wishing well"?02br
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00Those would be two examples to support that idea, but I'm struggling to come up with one that refutes it.02br
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00Oh wait - what about "fishing rod"? You can fish oceans or streams, so that wouldn't be intransitive.0-
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0 GG,02br
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00Those things (a looking glass or fishing rod) are, according to my books, kind of different from what I thinking about now. They are 'noun (gerund)' as, say, 'a movie theater' or 'a book store' (i.e a store for books, rod for fishing).02br
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00What I'm thinking about is those '-ing+noun's, like 'a sleeping baby' (i.e. a baby that is sle
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0The verb 'to fish' can be used both as a transitive and as an intransitive verb. The same is true of the verb 'run', for example. So you can say "I have running water" (i.e. The water runs. = 01i00intransitive02i00) 02br
00But 'run' can also be used as a transitive verb ("He runs a large company.")02br
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00I'd say it's true that in a
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Yankee12cite10I'd say it's true that in a 11i10present participle+noun12i10 construction, the participle comes from an intransitive verb or a verb used "intransitively".12br
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12blockquote
10You don't think you will come up with any exceptions? 02br
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0No, Taka, I haven't come up with any exceptions -- which doesn't necessarily mean there aren't any. 05002br
00But I did roll your question around in my head for a while.02br
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00My quote comes from Twain's 01u00A Connecticut Yankee in King Arthur's Court02u05100 Have you read anything by Mark Twain?02br
00I'll take a l
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0 Off the top of my head I'd say it's necessarily so, yes.02br
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00 The only examples I come up with are with verbs that, while having a transitive use, also have an intransitive use. It's very difficult to find a verb which is exclusively transitive and can be used as a present participle before a noun.02br
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00 Almost as if to prove that it's
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0 That is a 01i00frustrating book02i00, because it asks you to accept a rule without a 01i00compelling reason02i00. A verb is not intrinsically transitive or intransitive. Those are ways of using a verb. Verbs that are normally only used one way can still be coerced. The baby 01i00sleeps the sleep02i00 of the innocent.0-
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0 And 01i00pleasing disposition, annoying situation02i00, and many others with "psych-verbs".02br
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00 But these are still transitive. The book doesn't merely frustrate, nor the reason compel. It frustrates somebody, compels somebody, just as the disposition pleases someone, the situation annoys someone.02br
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00 CJ0-

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