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Laborious Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

-ing forms with (adjective/adverb)

Hi there teachers, 

I've learnt about gerunds that they are nouns derived from the base form of a verb by adding the suffix -ing

for e.g. we could say;
-His reckless/careless driving could have caused serious damages to the stores on the street. Right teachers? (Also, could you please tell me the function of 'his' in the sentence above?)

But, would it also be okay if we used an adverb with a gerund, please? I am asking this because I've seen both 'adverbs' and 'adjectives' used with -ing forms (gerunds). But even if so, then why do they call a gerund a "noun", please? 

- He was disappointed by his son's wrong doings.  (Is 'wrong' an adjective here? And could we pluralize 'doing' as shown in the example above,please?)

Thank you all.
  

Top answer

Laborious For example, we could say: His reckless/careless driving could have caused serious damages to the stores on the street . Right teachers? ) Yes.

  • Laborious For example, we could say: His reckless/careless driving could have caused serious damages to the stores on the street .
  • Right teachers?
  • ) Yes.
  • Its function is determiner.
  • Laborious But, would it also be okay if we used an adverb with a gerund, please?
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3 Answers
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LaboriousFor example, we could say:
His reckless/careless driving could have caused serious damages to the stores on the street. Right teachers? (Also, could you please tell me the function of 'his' in the sentence above?)
Yes.

Its function is determiner.
LaboriousBut, would it also be okay if we used an adverb with
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OK. Thank you very much, Aspara Gus, for your helpful reply!

And how about just 'doing' or 'doings'. Could we use an adjective with it?

For e.g., could we say 'He was disappointed by his son's shameful doings'? or 'The shameful doings of his son has (or have?) brought disgrace to the family'? ('doings' in these examples

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