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English 1b3 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Infinitives/ bare infinitives

The woman seemed to have been crying.

Infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs. What is the one in bold? A direct object/noun?

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You must have been waiting for hours!

Do bare infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs?

Is the bare infinitive in bold part of the verb phrase or what?

Thanks for you help with this!
  

Top answer

The woman isn't an act of crying (noun); and the crying doesn't modify "seem" (adverbial). So I would take "seem" as copulative, and the infinitive structure as adjectival: it describes the woman. I expect other interpretations are possible, though.

  • The woman isn't an act of crying (noun); and the crying doesn't modify "seem" (adverbial).
  • So I would take "seem" as copulative, and the infinitive structure as adjectival: it describes the woman.
  • I expect other interpretations are possible, though.
  • All the best, MrP
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14 Answers
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The woman isn't an act of crying (noun); and the crying doesn't modify "seem" (adverbial). So I would take "seem" as copulative, and the infinitive structure as adjectival: it describes the woman.

I expect other interpretations are possible, though.

All the best,

MrP
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Thanks a lot.

What about the second one? Do bare infinitives not function as nouns, adjectives, or adverbs?
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English 1b3The woman seemed to have been crying.

Infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs. What is the one in bold? A direct object/noun?


This example stretches the traditional system of grammar to the limit.

Instead of trying to invent a label which seems doomed to be unsatisfactory no matter what it
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Hi there

Thanks for you help. i understand that there may be more than one way to lable this.

But I was more concerned about the latter example:

You must have been waiting for hours!

Do bare infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs? (I don't think so)

Is the bare infinitive in bold part of the verb phrase or what?
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1. You | must have been waiting | for hours

To my mind, this is simply subject + verb phrase + prepositional adverbial.

MrP
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Yes, but the verb phrase has a bare infinitive in it, due to the modal auxiliary.

So I'm just confirming if I am right with that, and if bare infinitives can function as nouns adjective and adverbs as to infinitives can. Wiki doesn't mention them working as such, but I can't just trust that
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English 1b3Do bare infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs? (I don't think so)
Well, there's this:

What he did was wait.

The bare infinitive wait might be considered a noun by some. But that's just a surface level analysis typical of the traditional grammatical approach.

Then there's:

The agent
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I guess this is what I want to know:

Are bare infinitives usually used as part of a verb phrase when a modal aux. exists.

Are to infinitives not part of the verb phrase--because they function as nouns, adjectives, or adverbs.

Thanks
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Dear friends,

let me make some additional remarks:

1. The woman seemed to have been crying is a result of an interesting transformation which is called raising. In the original sentence, the entire post-predicate to-clause is the implied subject of the main clause, and this can be seen with the equivalent that-clause constructio
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Gleb_ChebrikoffThis kind of structure is called subject-to-subject raising.
Warning: Off-topic.

I'm aware of this nomenclature, but I've always thought it a misnomer. What's to say it isn't verb lowering? (No, I'm not being facetious.) I ask because the movement of a verb like seem into the subordinate clause is exactly

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