Just a guess: It's not the bare infinitive, it's the base form. The verb "do" can function both as an auxilliary and as a main finite verb. We take surveys / We do take surveys He takes surveys / He does take surveys We took surveys / We did take surveys When we use an auxilliary, the main verb takes the base form, and the auxilliary becomes inflected.
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electrumThe question is why an infinitive with antecedent 'do' may shed its 'to'.I believe the answer can be traced to the fact that "do" is a 'pro-verb'.
electrumI can't think of any other antecedent verbs that can abbreviate the infinitive in this construction.Me neither, but then no other verb is a 'pro-verb'
CalifJimI believe the answer can be traced to the fact that "do" is a 'pro-verb'.Saints be praised.
electrumbut it's still an infinitive.I'm not clear on the referent of "it", nor why "its" being an infinitive is relevant.
electrumBascially, you're right. but it's still an infinitive.
dictionary.com:
(in English) the simple or basic form of the verb, as come, take, eat, be, used after auxiliary verbs, as in I didn't come, He must be, or this simple form preceded by a function word, as to in I want to eat.
I thought of this oddity:
He should do take a survey...Wrong
electrumOops! That was intended for Avangi.Before I came to EF, I always quoted the "pure" form of the verb as the infinitive.