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Roky0071 Posted 7 years ago
Grammar

Infinitive vs gerund

There is an example here below

1. It pains me to see my children not being taught well in school.

2. Seeing my children not being taught well in school pains me.

3. To see my children not being taught well in school pains me.

Now my questions are below

a. Are the three sentences above carrying the same meaning grammatically and can be used interchangeably?

b. which forms are used mostly in English without changing the meaning or I mean which forms are alternative?

  

Top answer

roky0071 a. Are the three sentences above carrying the same meaning grammatically and can be used interchangeably? Yes.

  • roky0071 a.
  • Are the three sentences above carrying the same meaning grammatically and can be used interchangeably?
  • Yes.
  • roky0071 b.
  • which forms are used mostly in English without changing the meaning or I mean which forms are alternative?
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2 Answers
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roky0071a. Are the three sentences above carrying the same meaning grammatically and can be used interchangeably?

Yes.

roky0071b. which forms are used mostly in English without changing the meaning or I mean which forms are alternative?

I don't understand what new question you are asking here.

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roky0071Which forms are used mostly ...?

I'm not sure what you mean, but as long as you're learning about gerunds and infinitives, you might note that the gerund form is more likely to occur at the beginning, and the infinitive form is more likely at the end with "it" at the beginning.

...ing is [difficult / ... ].
It i

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