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Cool Breeze Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

Infinitive or gerund?

Hi all

Up to that point Keaton had just been a name to me. For someone interested in the silent era not to have seen / not having seen one of his films was like being interested in 1960s English pop music without having heard the Rolling Stones.


I have an opinion about the underlined part, but I would like to hear what other members think. Thank you.

Cheers
CB
  

Top answer

"

— Spides

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3 Answers
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Probably both ways of saying this are clear; however, for the sake of writing a sentence that follows the principle of 'parallelism,' the gerund choice (not having seen) is in the same form as the parallel verb in the next phrase--"like being interested." If the writer wants to use the infinitive "not to have seen," then the next verbal phrase should be "was like to be interested."
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English has a structure called a "for ... to ..." clause. It doesn't have one called a "for ... -ing ..." clause!

For me to explain it further is probably unnecessary!
*For me explaining it ...

CJ
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SpidesProbably both ways of saying this are clear; however, for the sake of writing a sentence that follows the principle of 'parallelism,' the gerund choice (not having seen) is in the same form as the parallel verb in the next phrase--"like being interested." If the writer wants to use the infinitive "not to have seen," then the next verbal phrase should be "was like t
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