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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Infinitive / Introductoty it
Why we can replace
"John is hard to please" with "It's hard to please John"
and can't replace
"John is eager to please everybody" with the same construction "It's + infinitive" as a subject.
What's the explanation for this in terms of grammar
"John is hard to please" with "It's hard to please John"
and can't replace
"John is eager to please everybody" with the same construction "It's + infinitive" as a subject.
What's the explanation for this in terms of grammar
Top answer
Because John is the object of the pleasing in the 1st but the subject of the pleasing in the 2nd.
- Because John is the object of the pleasing in the 1st but the subject of the pleasing in the 2nd.
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1 Answers
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Because John is the object of the pleasing in the 1st but the subject of the pleasing in the 2nd.
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