0
Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Indefinite pronoun

I have always known that after an indefinite pronoun, namely "everyone," "somebody" etc, the correct possessive pronoun to be used is "their." E.g.: Everyone should always do their best. However, the "Canadian Coles Notes Study Guide - English Grammar" states that this information is incorrect. According to the book, the accurate sentence would be : Everyone should always do his best.

According to the same book, furthermore, the verb following "None of" should be singular. Nevertheless, all the other grammars I checked asserted that both forms, singular and plural, are correct.

Please notice that the consulted grammars are all British, apart from the most recent "Cambridge Grammar of English" (a thick, green book which is accompanied by a CD) that tries to refer to English as it is used in its different varieties.

I would appreciate your help.

Regards,

Breno Silva
  

Top answer

Breno: There are many points, this being one of them, on which different grammarians disagree. "Thier" as a gender-neutral pronoun for indefinite pronouns is accepted by some, and not by others. Some accept it in casual, but not formal situations.

— AlpheccaStars

  • Breno: There are many points, this being one of them, on which different grammarians disagree.
  • "Thier" as a gender-neutral pronoun for indefinite pronouns is accepted by some, and not by others.
  • Some accept it in casual, but not formal situations.
  • English is a dynamic language, and the rules change over time...
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

6 Answers
0
Breno:

There are many points, this being one of them, on which different grammarians disagree.
"Thier" as a gender-neutral pronoun for indefinite pronouns is accepted by some, and not by others. Some accept it in casual, but not formal situations.

English is a dynamic language, and the rules change over time...
0
0
AnonymousI have always known that after an indefinite pronoun, namely "everyone," "somebody" etc, the correct possessive pronoun to be used is "their." E.g.: Everyone should always do their best. However, the "Canadian Coles Notes Study Guide - English Grammar" states that this information is incorrect. According to the book, the accurate sentence would be : Everyone shou
0
0
Huevos"none of" is always followed by a noun phrase, not a verb
It's usually followed by a noun phrase and a verb. "followed by" doesn't necessarily mean "immediately followed by". The last word of a sentence always follows the first word, but that doesn't mean all sentences have only two words.

CJ
0
0
CJ, what's your opinion on the question? Personally I just use what feels correct (for me) in each individual case. For example if this were followed by a linking verb and a predicate nominative I would pick the number of the verb based on the predicate nominative. With a predicate adjective I would probably only use singular, not certain of this though.

None of them is an Englishman.
0
0
HuevosPersonally I just use what feels correct (for me) in each individual case.
Same here. And nine times out of ten I make the agreement with the noun phrase immediately after "none of". I haven't introspected enough to be sure whether the difference between a predicate nominative or predicate adjective influences my choice. I don't think that it a
0
0
Just out of interest I had a look in the King James Bible and in places "none of" takes a plural verb in there, so, this usage has been around, even amongst scholars, for at least 400 years.

Wisdom and knowledge is granted unto thee; and I will give thee riches, and wealth, and honour, such as none of the kings have had that have been before thee
0

Related Questions