Hello!
The grammar rules I read say that after in spite of/ despite we use a noun or a gerund. What rules explain this usage:
In spite of what I said yesterday I still love you. Or In spite of all that has been said, they have been doing what they think is right. ?
panda panda 682 The grammar rules I read say that after in spite of/ despite we use a noun or a gerund. Don't read such rules. Throw the book away!
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panda panda 682The grammar rules I read say that after in spite of/ despite we use a noun or a gerund.
Don't read such rules. Throw the book away! Learn to use English the way it is used in real life. Don't pay too much attention to every "rule" you hear or read.
CB
The 'rule' is right.
Your examples "what I said yesterday" and "all that has been said" are noun phrases, so they do comply with the rule.
It is true that "in spite of " and "despite" take only noun phrases or gerund-participial clauses as complement:
Despite / in spite of the weather, the match still went ahead. [noun