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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Thanks in advance!
Jack
Grammar
In spite of all that has been said...
In spite of all that has been said,they have been doing what they think is right.
In the first half of the sentence above,why does the relative clause use has not have when it modifies all?Can all that be replaced by what?Which one is right when it is replaced by what,has or have?And in the second half of the sentence above,is it right to use is,or it should be are?Can what be replaced by all that?And should the is be changed to are when it does so?Thanks in advance!
Jack
Top answer
-- 'All' is a singular non-count pronoun here. - - Yes. -- Has.
- -- 'All' is a singular non-count pronoun here.
- - - Yes.
- -- Has.
- - Yes, 'is right' is right.
- -- Yes.
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3 Answers
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In the first half of the sentence above,why does the relative clause use has not have when it modifies all?-- 'All' is a singular non-count pronoun here.
Can all that be replaced by what?-- Yes.
Which one is right when it is replaced by what,has or have?-- Has.
And in the second half of the sentence above,is it right to use is,or it should be are?-
Can all that be replaced by what?-- Yes.
Which one is right when it is replaced by what,has or have?-- Has.
And in the second half of the sentence above,is it right to use is,or it should be are?-
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Anonymous In the first half of the sentence above,why does the relative clause use has not have when it modifies all?In spite of all that has been said....
All is singular here - it means everything.
The town crier yells: "All is well. All is well." (Everything is OK.)
All the cake is gone.
In many cas
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