0
Inchoateknowledge Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

if means because?

If he did not call in the morning, he must be at home.

Because he did not call in the morning, I presume he should be at home.

IMO, the two sentences are equivalent.

I would like to invite comments.

thanks
  

Top answer

I don't like if here. As would be better, IMO.

  • I don't like if here.
  • As would be better, IMO.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

13 Answers
0
I don't like if here.
As would be better, IMO.
0
Hi Marius,

I took the example from Swan's Practical E. U.

It did not tell about the meaning, though.
0
Inchoateknowledge,

Maybe the first sentence allows for some uncertainty about whether he called or not.

The second sentence sounds much more confident that the condition has been met (he did not call).
0
Inchoateknowledge,

I think your suggestion that the two sentences are synonymous is correct. 'If' does have connotation of surprise (not uncertainty) but this emotional tint in no way changes the meaning on the whole.

Call me Slava.

P.S. The contexts for both will differ, of course.
0
>I took the example from Swan's Practical E. U.

Which section? On "if"? Section title, section number, page, pls. Were both sentences there?
0
Marius Hancu>I took the example from Swan's Practical E. U.

Which section? On "if"? Section title, section number, page, pls. Were both sentences there?
If he did not call in the morning, he must be at home. This implies a certain degree of uncertainty about [his calling]. The [if] and [must] relationship already has an
0
Another interpretation (I've changed #2 a little, to make it more natural):

1. If he did not call in the morning, he must be at home.

This has at least two possible meanings:

i) The speaker knows that he did not call in the morning (perhaps the speaker was there):
"Since he didn't call in the morning, he must be at home."
In this context, t
0
The proposition that he did not call in the morning is not necessarily true in the first sentence. It is necessarily true in the second. Therefore, the two are not equivalent. (The difference to me is similar to the difference between may be and is.)

-- Maybe he called Mary this morning. Maybe he didn't. But I wonder what that might mean about where
0
After reading the other postings, my impression that 1) is a obfuscating/confusing sentence has only aggravated.

That, to me, is just bad writing (even if composed by Swan himself).
0
Another likewise example:

If he's not here anymore, he must have left the company. (Mark Ellis, Nina O'Driscoll, Adrian Pilbeam, "Professional English" Longman Group ltd. 1984).

Related Questions