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MrGuedes Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

If it was/were...

Hello!

As far as I know, the rule for the 2nd conditional is If + Past Simple, would + Infinitive. It's right, isn't it?

However, I also know that there is an exception for the verb to be. Normally, the verb would be used in the Past Simple as "was" for the 1st and 3rd persons of the singular, and "were" for the others, right?

But I know that, when used with the 2nd conditional, you use "were" for the 1st person, instead of the normal "was", right?

But here's where doubts begin. Although my English teacher says you only use "were" instead of "was" for the 1st person of the singular, I've also seen that change in the 3rd person. My question is: does that change really exist also in the 3rd person of the singular, or is it confined to the 1st person?

For example, "It's not raining, therefore, I won't take my umbrella." Should I say "If it was raining, I would take my umbrella." or "If it were raining, I would take my umbrella."? The second option (were) sounds better to me, but I may be wrong. Could you please help me? Thank you!
  

Top answer

In second conditional sentences with BE in British English, were is correct in all persons. However, these days, most people use was in the first and third person singular,

  • In second conditional sentences with BE in British English, were is correct in all persons.
  • However, these days, most people use was in the first and third person singular,
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2 Answers
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In second conditional sentences with BE in British English, were is correct in all persons. However, these days, most people use was in the first and third person singular,

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