It's a remnant of the use of the subjunctive mood in a contrary-to-fact-clause. ]
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PhilipI believe 'was' sounds uneducated in this case- was is as equally correct as were according to people like Micheal Swan so I don't believe it has anything to do with education. I know a lot of Americans consider was incorrect but all my grammar books confirm that either are acceptable. However I don't understand why with that conditional. I understa
Grammar GeekInteresting that Americans consider it incorrect, and (by implication?) the British find it okay?Either are acceptable in the UK. Were is more common although.