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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
If at all and subjunctive
Is it always subjunctive when we have 'if at all'? For instance: There was no problem, and if at all there were any, it was only a manageable one. If at all there were any (or) If at all there was any. If it is subjunctive, I am assuming it should be 'were'? Or, is it 'was' in all cases?
Top answer
Well, the way you've used both forms seems a little odd to me. If there is any ice cream at all, I'll have some. If there were any ice cream at all, I would have some.
- Well, the way you've used both forms seems a little odd to me.
- If there is any ice cream at all, I'll have some.
- If there were any ice cream at all, I would have some.
- If there was any ice cream at all, I didn't see it.
- The answer is 'No, you needn't always use subjunctive verb forms'.
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1 Answers
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Well, the way you've used both forms seems a little odd to me.
If there is any ice cream at all, I'll have some.
If there were any ice cream at all, I would have some.
If there was any ice cream at all, I didn't see it.
The answer is 'No, you needn't always use subjunctive verb forms'.
If there is any ice cream at all, I'll have some.
If there were any ice cream at all, I would have some.
If there was any ice cream at all, I didn't see it.
The answer is 'No, you needn't always use subjunctive verb forms'.
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