Hello, this is my first time I make a post on this website, so I am sorry if there is something wrong. Could you check my writing please? Thank you so much.
Here is my writing:
Given are two figures concerning criminality in Britain. While the first indicates the gender of the convicted criminal, the second gives data on the rate of the offender between male and female in various ages.
It is clear that 96 percent of Britain in gaol are men, and a mere 4 percent are women. The figure has shown that the male criminal convictions of Britain increase dramatically from 10 years old and reach a peak at the age of 20 at 16 percent. There is the same rise of females in the same age period which start at 0 percent among 10-year-old then climb to approximately 5 percent at the age of 20. In the following years, criminality has a tendency of decreasing sharply in both genders. At 60 years old, the convictions percentage of females are merely 0 percent, while male are higher at 2 percent by the similar age.
In the total 100 percent of all prisoners, there is a negligible 4 percent is female, and the remainder are men.
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Hello Anonymous;
If you want my feedback, you will have to register here. I do not spend time and effort on people who don't take the few seconds of time to register. All these anonymous posts are all lumped together and do not reflect the work of individual students.
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Given are two figures (What specifically are they? A diagram? A table? A time series stacked bar graph?) concerning criminality in Britain. While the first indicates the gender of the convicted criminal, the second gives data (That is very vague, be precise) on the