Idiom: as opposed to

Question

The idiom 'as opposed to' I assume is followed by a noun (object of the preposition to).

In the following sentence I copied from this forum, 'there' follows the idiom. Can someone please explain why 'there' can follow this expression and not always an object?

the antecedent noun and the relative pronoun are fused into the relative pronoun whoever/whomever inside the relative clause, as opposed to there being an antecedent outside the relative clause.

Thanks

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

English 1b3I assume is followed by a noun (object of the preposition to).

Yes, the gerund clause is itself the noun phrase that acts as the object of to.

being is the gerund. there is the subject of the gerund (in the same sense that there is the subject of There is a wolf in the garden.)

I am in the garden >>> my being in the garden >>> as opposed to my being in the garden

The wolf is in the garden >>> the wolf's being in the garden >>> as opposed to the wolf's being in the garden

There is a wolf in the garden >>> there being a wolf in the garden >>> as opposed to there being a wolf in the garden

(You don't make there a possessive. *there's being a wolf ...)

CJ

English 1b3 · Answer

Perfect.

English 1b3 · Answer

Is there not able to make a possessive because it is an expletive (doesn't represent anything)?

Idiom: as opposed to

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