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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
I wrote him vs. I wrote to him
Several students of mine use the expression: I wrote him + Inf. Verb e.g I wrote him to ask...or, I wrote him to say.
To me this sounds wrong: I would say I wrote to him asking or I wrote to him to say. However, several North American friends tell me that the former is perfectly acceptable.
Could you clarify if I am right, or not, and why?
To me this sounds wrong: I would say I wrote to him asking or I wrote to him to say. However, several North American friends tell me that the former is perfectly acceptable.
Could you clarify if I am right, or not, and why?
Top answer
The omission of the preposition 'to' is optional here. ) Are you at home now? / Are you home now?
- The omission of the preposition 'to' is optional here.
- ) Are you at home now?
- / Are you home now?
- )
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8 Answers
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The omission of the preposition 'to' is optional here. Other prepositions offer similar options in certain circumstances:
I wrote to him to ask / I wrote him to ask
(But note that you cannot use '(X) I wrote to him a letter'.)
Are you at home now? / Are you home now?
They arrived on Sunday / They arrived
I wrote to him to ask / I wrote him to ask
(But note that you cannot use '(X) I wrote to him a letter'.)
Are you at home now? / Are you home now?
They arrived on Sunday / They arrived
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The first "to" (preposition) is optional, and best omitted before an infinitive, in my opinion.
Think of "I called him to tell him I'd be late." In referring to the phone, we never say "called to him."
(Well, "I called to him from the back yard" works. (no phone))
I expect "I wrote to him" persists because of it's long history.
But we don't need a second "to" in order
Think of "I called him to tell him I'd be late." In referring to the phone, we never say "called to him."
(Well, "I called to him from the back yard" works. (no phone))
I expect "I wrote to him" persists because of it's long history.
But we don't need a second "to" in order
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Hi guys,
I think of 'I wrote him . . . ' as a feature of American English.
Clive
I think of 'I wrote him . . . ' as a feature of American English.
Clive
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I think of 'I wrote him . . . ' as a feature of American English.
Thanks, Clive.
Would you say that native speakers of CnE and BrE typically do not use the form even casually?
Best regards, - A.
"CnE" is a guess, of course.
Thanks, Clive.
Would you say that native speakers of CnE and BrE typically do not use the form even casually?
Best regards, - A.
"CnE" is a guess, of course.
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As someone who spent 20 years in Canada, I found it common enough there.
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I think you are correct. Stated alone "I wrote him" implies that the speaker wrote the word him. "I wrote to him" implies that the speaker sent a message to someone. So not including "to" leads to ambiguity if stated alone and thus potentially, ambiguity in any context, representing poor communication/ use of language.
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"I wrote him" is absolutely incorrect. "I write" (without "to") requires the question "What" but not "to whom" " I am not a letter you to "write me" : ) Even Grammarly tries to correct it while I am writing!
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