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Ardorado Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
I wish it were true
why is the to be verb for 'it' is 'were'?
isnt it supposed to be 'was' since to be verb comes after 'it'?
can someone please explain grammatically?
isnt it supposed to be 'was' since to be verb comes after 'it'?
can someone please explain grammatically?
Top answer
It's the subjunctive mood, here used in a situation of "contrary-to-fact". The subjunctive is barely in use recently, but those of us who like it hang onto it with some zeal. A thorough explanation of it probably exists somewhere online.
- It's the subjunctive mood, here used in a situation of "contrary-to-fact".
- The subjunctive is barely in use recently, but those of us who like it hang onto it with some zeal.
- A thorough explanation of it probably exists somewhere online.
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2 Answers
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It's the subjunctive mood, here used in a situation of "contrary-to-fact". The subjunctive is barely in use recently, but those of us who like it hang onto it with some zeal. A thorough explanation of it probably exists somewhere online.
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You can certainly use was if you prefer. Grammatically was and were are both perfectly OK. The difference is one of style level: were is here somewhat more formal than was.
The were in I wish it were true has nothing to do with past time (i.e. past tense); it's a mood form. It indicates a degree of remoteness from factuality. This use of
The were in I wish it were true has nothing to do with past time (i.e. past tense); it's a mood form. It indicates a degree of remoteness from factuality. This use of
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