Hi q62, The way the sentence is written, the verb to have is in the past tense and goes with the singular pronoun 'it', so you could not use the verb form 'have' which is present tense and does not go with 'it'. ' I hope that makes it clear. If not, please ask again.
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quebec62Could you explain why this sentenceYes. It is because it is used in a subordinate clause after knew.usinguses "had" instead of "have"?