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Jackson6612 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

'I' is used with both 'have' and 'was'. Why isn't it 'has' instead of 'have'?

'have' is used with plural subjects such as they, we, men, etc. 'was' is used with singular subjects. 'I' is used with both 'have' and 'was'. Why isn't it 'has' instead of 'have'? Why this irregularity? Please guide me.
  

Top answer

Only heaven knows! (If even they do... ) If you start wondering about and trying to explain all the linguistic oddities and irregularities of the English language, you have a lifetime job awaiting you and won't be much wiser when you kick the bucket!

— Cool Breeze

  • Only heaven knows!
  • (If even they do...
  • ) If you start wondering about and trying to explain all the linguistic oddities and irregularities of the English language, you have a lifetime job awaiting you and won't be much wiser when you kick the bucket!
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2 Answers
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Only heaven knows! (If even they do...Emotion: smile) If you start wondering about and trying to explain all the linguistic oddities and irregular
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Jackson6612'have' is used with plural subjects such as they, we, men, etc. 'was' is used with singular subjects. 'I' is used with both 'have' and 'was'. Why isn't it 'has' instead of 'have'? Why this irregularity? Please guide me.

Answer to your question:

English Language is full of exceptions. All the verbs with "I" are used in their plural form
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