I hear and read people using the phrase: ''I haven't the faintest idea''
My question is about the part after ''haven't''. Why is got after haven't omitted? I mean if someone asks me whether I have time for the movies tonight, I can't reply: ''I haven't time" (or can I?)
Is it some sort of a standard phrase where you can leave out got
Thanks!
Yes, you can say "I haven't time", though it wouldn't be the most common phrasing. , though these may sound quite old-fashioned or stilted to modern speakers, and I don't recommend that you use them yourself. My guess is that we are familiarised to "I haven't ~" in certain set phrases such as "I haven't the faintest idea", so these sound more normal and natural to us than the ad hoc usage in phrases such as "I haven't a car".
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Yes, you can say "I haven't time", though it wouldn't be the most common phrasing. You can even in principle say "I haven't a car", "I haven't a job", etc., though these may sound quite old-fashioned or stilted to modern speakers, and I don't recommend that you use them yourself. My guess is that we are familiarised to "I haven't ~" in certain set phrases such as "I haven't the faintest idea",
JaxTellerWhy is got after haven't omitted?
You can put it back in if you want. It wouldn't be wrong. I think we Americans usually say it with 'got'.
JaxTellerIs it some sort of a standard phrase where you can leave out got?
Yes. I suppose you could