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Anonymous Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

I haven't slept for two days!

I haven't slept for two days! vs. -I haven't been sleeping for two days!-

Can someone explain please why is the first form correct and second one incorrect? Important information may be that it has been written in letter.
  

Top answer

Anonymous Can someone explain please why is the first form correct and second one incorrect? They are both grammatical, but the second is not very idiomatic. The first suggests not sleeping for two days, whether intentionally or unintentionally.

— CalifJim

  • Anonymous Can someone explain please why is the first form correct and second one incorrect?
  • They are both grammatical, but the second is not very idiomatic.
  • The first suggests not sleeping for two days, whether intentionally or unintentionally.
  • The second suggests troubled sleep or the inability to sleep for two days even after trying to sleep.
  • The second is probably more idiomatically expressed as "I haven't been sleeping well lately".
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AnonymousCan someone explain please why is the first form correct and second one incorrect?
They are both grammatical, but the second is not very idiomatic.

The first suggests not sleeping for two days, whether intentionally or unintentionally. The second suggests troubled sleep or the inability to sleep for two days even after trying to sleep. The
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