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Jun-god Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

I have a question about causative verb "HAVE"

0Hi, teachers~!02br
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00First look at these two sentences.02br
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01b001) The king had the guard come before him.02b02br
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01b002) The king had the guard coming before him.02b02br
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00well, I know that the first one is correct, right?02br
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00But, Is the second one incorrect? or if it's also correct, what is the exact meaning compare to the first one?02br
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00Please, help me~, thanks in advance~!0-
  

Top answer

02br 02br 00Note that "the guard come before him" is a bit unclear. 0-

— BarbaraPA

  • 02br 02br 00Note that "the guard come before him" is a bit unclear.
  • 0-
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6 Answers
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01) It happened once02br
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002) It was either happeningn right then, as the astory is being told, or repeatedly.02br
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00Note that "the guard come before him" is a bit unclear. The guard had to come and stand in front of the king?0-
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0A-ha, thanks, I got it! 02br
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00Hm..I also only have that one sentence, so I don't know why they are doing that. 05002br
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00But, I don't understand why you think that sentence is unclear.02br
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00The king made them to do it. 02br
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00..?!?!?!02br
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00My english is not enough g
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0Perhaps like, "come before the court." (The king was often the court - judge and jury.)0-
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Grammar Geek12cite10The guard had to come and stand in front of the king?12blockquote
10 I would assume so. The guard was ordered to appear before the king -- to be praised or reprimanded, presumably. Compare the expression: to be called on the carpet.02br
00I would have preferred the verb 0
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0I was wondering whether it was one guard, the poor fellow the king wanted to see, or "the guard" as in "the army" - the engire gang of fellows who guard the king. (When I worked at a Ren Fest one summer, they were collectively "the Queen's Guard." And they were all yummy!)02br
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00If it's the one fellow, then the "coming" doesn't really make sense with the "he was always
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0It seems like "come" is more Elizabethan than "appear," in this sense.0-
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