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Youngbuts Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
I have a question.
Hi, teachers.
I would like to ask a question about dative verbs such as give, send etc. From my home country, I have learned they usually have two forms and both of the forms can be interchaneable.
I gave the book to my friend.= I gave my friend the book.
But I can't help having a doubt as to why native speakers should have had two forms if both patterns were exactly the same. So I made some situation I believe tests the assumed difference.
A boss just have finished his contract paper and wants to mail it by his assistant.
The boss : Could you send the papers to them ? or Could you send them the papers?
I wonder whether the two are the same.
In the other situation, my friend bought a book for one friend of ours, who live in the other city. So I ask to him:
Could you send the book to him? or Could you send him the book?
Are they interchageable in this case? If not, why?
P.S. I made two case according to the following base. In the first case, the papers belong to the boss not to the assistant( the subject of the sentence) On the other hand, in the second, the book belong to or is owned by my friend (the subject of the sentence). My mother tongue has a subliminal signal between two cases. If the difference of two dative forms is not on this, what is it? I'm really curious about it.
I would like to ask a question about dative verbs such as give, send etc. From my home country, I have learned they usually have two forms and both of the forms can be interchaneable.
I gave the book to my friend.= I gave my friend the book.
But I can't help having a doubt as to why native speakers should have had two forms if both patterns were exactly the same. So I made some situation I believe tests the assumed difference.
A boss just have finished his contract paper and wants to mail it by his assistant.
The boss : Could you send the papers to them ? or Could you send them the papers?
I wonder whether the two are the same.
In the other situation, my friend bought a book for one friend of ours, who live in the other city. So I ask to him:
Could you send the book to him? or Could you send him the book?
Are they interchageable in this case? If not, why?
P.S. I made two case according to the following base. In the first case, the papers belong to the boss not to the assistant( the subject of the sentence) On the other hand, in the second, the book belong to or is owned by my friend (the subject of the sentence). My mother tongue has a subliminal signal between two cases. If the difference of two dative forms is not on this, what is it? I'm really curious about it.
Top answer
Others may have something to add to this, but I would say that the difference in word placement is due to a difference in emphasis. ) Could you send the book to him. ( the book is emphasized) Don't send him the photo ---send him the book .
- Others may have something to add to this, but I would say that the difference in word placement is due to a difference in emphasis.
- ) Could you send the book to him.
- ( the book is emphasized) Don't send him the photo ---send him the book .
- Could you send him the book.
- ( him is emphasized) Don't sent to the book to her --send it to him .
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3 Answers
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Others may have something to add to this, but I would say that the difference in word placement is due to a difference in emphasis. (You would hear this in conversation more so than in writing.)
Could you send the book to him. (the book is emphasized) Don't send him the photo---send him the book.
Could you send him the book. (him is emphasized) Don't s
Could you send the book to him. (the book is emphasized) Don't send him the photo---send him the book.
Could you send him the book. (him is emphasized) Don't s
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Thank you, Sir. Your comment is very helpful.
Could I understand your advice as a more general fact that to native speakers, the last word in a sentence have a emphasis or the most emphasis including this case?
Now, I seem to confront a cultural difficulty. I cann't know how I can finish my reply to Doctor D with politeness.
I hope you have happy days. (I am not sure whether
Could I understand your advice as a more general fact that to native speakers, the last word in a sentence have a emphasis or the most emphasis including this case?
Now, I seem to confront a cultural difficulty. I cann't know how I can finish my reply to Doctor D with politeness.
I hope you have happy days. (I am not sure whether
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In speaking the sentences you gave, the normal emphasis would be on the word after the verb. You could emphasize the ending word, but it would not be the normal way to say it.
I think that your original sentences could be read as meaning the same. I only wanted to suggest that it was possible, in some cases, to make a distinction.
Also, you are correct that, in general, the f
I think that your original sentences could be read as meaning the same. I only wanted to suggest that it was possible, in some cases, to make a distinction.
Also, you are correct that, in general, the f
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