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Tapas Mandal Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

"I had written it before talking to you." Is this sentence grammatically correct?

"I had written it before talking to you." Is this sentence grammatically correct? Because here 'I had written' is in past perfect form and 'talking to you' is in continuous form.
  

Top answer

Can we use the word 'talking' as a gerund here? Or it should be like this "I had written it before talked to you" if we don't use the word 'talking' as a gerund. Someone please clarify.

— Tapas Mandal

  • Can we use the word 'talking' as a gerund here?
  • Or it should be like this "I had written it before talked to you" if we don't use the word 'talking' as a gerund.
  • Someone please clarify.
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3 Answers
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Can we use the word 'talking' as a gerund here? Or it should be like this "I had written it before talked to you" if we don't use the word 'talking' as a gerund. Someone please clarify.
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Tapas MandalCan we use the word 'talking' as a gerund here? Or it should be like this "I had written it before talked to you" if we don't use the word 'talking' as a gerund. Someone please clarify.
As used in your sentence, "talking" is indeed a gerund. In this type of context, "talking" or any "ing" form in effec
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grammarfreak I had discussed the matter with John before I talked / talking to the manager. The difference is, before Talking to the manager is a gerundal clause (or adverbial clause). " Before I talked to the manager..." is a subordinate clause.
Thank you grammarfreak for this clarification.
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