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Question

I knew she have always had . . .I knew she have had . . .Does this two sentences express the same meaning ?

BarbaraPA · Accepted Answer

I know she has always had...
I knew she always had...

Yours are not grammatical.

Lokon · Answer

Oh.
How should I express I know something about her, something that she has from past to present.

Mister Micawber · Answer

You can use what GG gave you: She has (always) had (difficulty spelling / a sweet tooth / to ask her mother for money).

PS: I love your avatar!

Lokon · Answer

Thanks.

Lokon · Answer

I got another question, but didn't want to start a new thread because the question is a similar to this thread.

I asked her if she really have/has to do this.

She seemed to had/have ignored my comment.

Which have should I use in these situation ? In past tense writing.

Mister Micawber · Answer

I asked her if she really has/had to do this.-- 'Has/had' is the finite verb; 'she' is 3rd person, so 'have' is impossible.

She seemed to have ignored my comment.-- 'Seemed' is the finite verb; 'have' is infinitive, so 'had' is impossible.

Which have should I use in these situation? --Which situation?

Lokon · Answer

Sorry, but I don't understand the explanation.<img class='emoticon' style='Width:19px;Height:19px;' data-delaysrc='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/87.gif' src='https://uat-englishforward-forums-backend.s3.us-west-2.amazonaws.com/Emoticons/87.gif' alt='Emotion: speechless'/>

Mister Micawber · Answer

Then you need to read about verbs. Start with this: [url=http://www.english-language-grammar-guide.com/finite-verbs.html]FINITE and NON-FINITE VERBS[/url].

Lokon · Answer

Mister MicawberShe seemed to have ignored my comment.-- 'Seemed' is the finite verb; 'have' is infinitive, so 'had' is impossible.

I don't understand why had is impossible.
Is there a grammatical rule that states only one finite verb and one infinitive verb in a sentence ?
Please advice.

I googled this, they proclaimed have in that situation is correct, I'm not sure why.

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080811044349AAhwaMl

Mister Micawber'Has/had' is the finite verb; 'she' is 3rd person, so 'have' is impossible.

So have is a infinite verb , but after change form to has or had, they become finite ?

Beside changing forms, does it also mean ?

A finite verb (sometimes called main verbs) is a verb that has a subject, this means that it can be the main verb in a sentence. It shows tense (past / present etc) or number (singular / plural).

A non-finite verb has no subject, tense or number. The only non-finite verb forms are the infinitive (indicated by to), the gerund or the participle.

I also googled this. Sorry for a bunch of questions, because I really want to learn.

Mister Micawber · Answer

I don't understand why had is impossible.-- Because the infinitive is required after 'to', and the infinitive is 'have' only.

Is there a grammatical rule that states only one finite verb and one infinitive verb in a sentence ?-- No, but there must be one finite verb: She wanted (finite) to sing (inf) and dance (inf) all night.

I googled this, they proclaimed have in that situation is correct, I'm not sure why.-- First, that is a silly forum site; second, they say (the ones that know anything about grammar) that 'have' is correct because it is, as I have just repeated above.

So have is a infinite verb , but after change form to has or had, they become finite?-- Yes.

Beside changing forms, does it also mean ? A finite verb (sometimes called main verbs) is a verb that has a subject, this means that it can be the main verb in a sentence. It shows tense (past / present etc) or number (singular / plural).-- Yes

A non-finite verb has no subject, tense or number. The only non-finite verb forms are the infinitive (indicated by to), the gerund or the participle.-- Yes

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