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Kis7385 Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

I bought the book for my son.

One English book says,

1. "I bought the book for my son." means I bought the book to give it to my son.

someone on another post said

2. "Please pass the salt for me. (means you want somebody to give somebody else the salt on your behalf)"

Comparing to 2, can 1 mean "I bought the book to another person because my son asked me to"?

I'm so confused with this.
  

Top answer

kis7385 can 1 mean "I bought the book to for another person because my son asked me to"? Yes. That is another meaning of the same sentence.

  • kis7385 can 1 mean "I bought the book to for another person because my son asked me to"?
  • Yes.
  • That is another meaning of the same sentence.
  • CJ
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3 Answers
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kis7385can 1 mean "I bought the book to for another person because my son asked me to"?
Yes. That is another meaning of the same sentence.

CJ
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Thank you, CJ

Then, I suppose 2 can also mean "pass the salt to me" vise versa.

But I'm afraid this is wrong. Could you explain why?
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kis7385Then, I suppose 2 can also mean "pass the salt to me"
No. The difference is in the verb itself. The verb pass allows both to and for. When a verb can take both, then each means something different.

Pass the salt to me. (I want to receive the salt.)
Pass the salt for me. (Someone else receives the salt

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