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Usenet Posted 23 years ago
Usage

"I am become" -> where does it come from

Hi..
I'm learning (trying to :-) english and while reading some text yesterday I saw such an expression "I am become death". I guess it's something similar to "I've become death" but it doesn't match any of grammar rules I know. I suppose it's something as in german. I mean (for those of you who know something about german):
"Ich habe gemacht" so we use haben (to have in english), but "Ich bin gegangen" and here it's replaced with sein (to be). I thought it may comes from some old times when in english such a situation was possible. Am I right?
If anyone know what's it all about I'll be grateful for explaining it to me.

Thank you in advance

Valamarth valamarth(at)frugo.pl "Homines id quod volunt credunt" - Juliusz Cezar
  

Top answer

[nq:1] I thought it may comes from some old times when in english such a situation was possible. Am I right? [/nq] Yes, you are right.

  • [nq:1] I thought it may comes from some old times when in english such a situation was possible.
  • Am I right?
  • [/nq] Yes, you are right.
  • It used to be normal in English, and there are many vestiges of it.
  • "Joy to the world!
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14 Answers
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[nq:1] I thought it may comes from some old times when in english such a situation was possible. Am I right? [/nq]
Yes, you are right. It used to be normal in English, and there are many vestiges of it. "Joy to the world! The Lord is come!"

\\P. Schultz
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Schultz piszac w wiadomosci < zmusil(a) mnie do zareagowania...
[nq:1]Yes, you are right. It used to be normal in English, and there are many vestiges of it. "Joy to the world! The Lord is come!"[/nq]
Thank you for so quick reply... That's exactly what I thought. Now I'm sure.

Thank you once again

Valamarth valamarth(at)frugo.pl Po wyci±gniêciu zawleczki granat przestaje
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Schultz piszac w wiadomosci < zmusil(a) mnie do zareagowania...
[nq:1]Yes, you are right. It used to be normal in English, and there are many vestiges of it. "Joy to the world! The Lord is come!"[/nq]
Thank you.... But tell me does it stand fo "I have" or "I become" or maybe something else? So in that case would "Lord is come" mean "Lord has come"?

Thank you once again.....
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[nq:2] I thought it may comes from some old times when in english such a situation was possible. Am I right? [/nq]
[nq:1]Yes, you are right. It used to be normal in English, and there are many vestiges of it. "Joy to the world! The Lord is come!"[/nq]
But weren't the lines of that hymn (the Lord is come) and that translation of the Gita (?) "I am become death, the destroyer of worlds" both
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[nq:1]Thank you.. But tell me does it stand fo "I have" or "I become" or maybe something else? So in that case would "Lord is come" mean "Lord has come"?[/nq]
It is like "I have become". For the christmas carol it would be "the Lord has come". Still, though, to me it seems to have more of a sense of immediacy than regular old "I have become".
In vernacular English in the southeast US (and
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Paul pisz¹c w wiadomo?ci
< zmusi³(a) mnie do zareagowania...
[nq:1]It is like "I have become". For the christmas carol it would be "the Lord has come". Still, though, to ... like "I'm gone" to indicate immediate future. Why do I bring this up? It's just interesting, that's all. - Paul[/nq]
Uhuh.....
I get it...... Thanks for all answers..... You were very helpful.... Now I've got o
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[nq:1]I'm learning (trying to :-) english and while reading some text yesterday I saw such an expression "I am become ... I thought it may comes from some old times when in english such a situation was possible. Am I right?[/nq]
Yes; as P. Schultz said, the auxiliary "to be" instead of "to have" there is an archaic usage. I've seen that particular phrase in a quotation from the Vedic scripture
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Odysseus piszac w wiadomosci < zmusil(a) mnie do zareagowania...
[nq:1]quotation from the Vedic scripture Bhagavad-Gita : "I am become Death, the destroyer of worlds," made famous in modern times by Louis Oppenheimer's having quoted it after observing the world's first atomic explosion.[/nq]
And that's exactly where my question comes from :-)

So just like I thought it was as it is
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[nq:1]Schultz piszac w wiadomosci < zmusil(a) mnie do zareagowania...[/nq]
[nq:2]Yes, you are right. It used to be normal in ... of it. "Joy to the world! The Lord is come!"[/nq]
Not only "vestiges" there are still some pretty lively uses of that modal "is". The OED remarks that be for have is

retained only with come, go, rise, set, fall, apart, arrive, depart, grow , and the like
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[nq:2]Thank you.. But tell me does it stand fo "I ... that case would "Lord is come" mean "Lord has come"?[/nq]
[nq:1]It is like "I have become". For the christmas carol it would be "the Lord has come". Still, though, to ... say things like "I'm gone" to indicate immediate future. Why do I bring this up? It's just interesting, that's all.[/nq]
"The Lord is come" is perhaps better understoo

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